Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 00:19
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What did someone say to you that instantly made you realize their life was in danger?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Have you ever had a scary dream about a loved one or friend soon after their death?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What caused the decline of the Soprano crew?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.